Thursday, August 14, 2008

Discrimination

Should the International Olympic Committee ban countries (Saudi Arabia and Brunei) that don't allow women to compete? There have been precedents, South Africa was barred from competing during Apartheid. Would the IOC allow a country to compete if it didn't allow black or Jewish people to play sports? Would an Olympic ban on these countries just cause more trouble? What do you think?
http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2008/08/13/AR2008081303366.html?

2 comments:

KJW said...

I think it's a slippery slope, but that doesn't mean we should risk walking on said slope. We should probably use better shoes than my hippie ones, though. You know what bad grip those have.

The literal slipperiness I'm talking about is if we ban one group for their shitty ideals and practices, where do we draw the line? Could the committee be overly influenced by one group another and then start banning communist countries or capitalist countries or whoever else based on the beliefs of the committee?

On the other hand, someone needs to make a statement, and the Olympics might be the place to do that.

In sum, I don't know, and I have non-grippy shoes.

KJW said...

Edit: "...but that doesn't mean we should risk walking on said slope" should read "...but that doesn't mean we SHOULDN'T risk walking on said slope."

I think.

It's been a long day.